Practice Exercises - AP Psychology Premium 2024

PRACTICE QUESTIONS

1. You are at a lecture about the history of psychology and the speaker states that Wilhelm Wundt’s theory of structuralism was the first scientific psychological theory. On what historical fact might the speaker be basing her or his argument?

(A) Wundt was internationally known at the time, and this lent credence to his theory in the scientific community.

(B) Wundt studied under Ivan Pavlov for his graduate training, and Pavlov required scientific methods to be used.

(D) Structuralism was based on careful anecdotes gathered from Wundt’s extensive clinical career.

(E) Wundt was the first person to study psychology in an academic setting.

2. Sigmund Freud’s theory of the unconscious mind

(A) was revolutionary because it was the first comprehensive explanation of human thought and behavior.

(B) resulted from discoveries about the human brain obtained by cadaver dissection.

(D) focused entirely on human males’ sex drive.

(E) depends on the idea that humans can remember events but not be consciously aware of the memory.

3. In what way might a behaviorist disagree with a cognitive psychologist about the cause of aggression?

(A) A behaviorist might state that aggression is caused by memories or ways we think about aggressive behavior, while a cognitive psychologist might say aggression is caused by a past repressed experience.

(B) A behaviorist might state that aggression is a behavior encouraged by our genetic code, while a cognitive psychologist might state that aggression is caused by memories or ways we think about aggressive behavior.

(C) A behaviorist might state that aggression is caused by past rewards for aggressive behavior, while a cognitive psychologist might believe aggression is caused by an expressed desire to fulfill certain life needs.

(D) A behaviorist might state that aggression is caused by past rewards for aggressive behavior, while a cognitive psychologist might believe aggression is caused by memories or ways we think about aggressive behavior.

(E) A behaviorist would not disagree with a cognitive psychologist about aggression because they both believe that aggressive behavior is caused by the way we cognitively process certain behaviors.

4. Dr. Marco explains to a client that his feelings of hostility toward a coworker are most likely caused by the way the client interprets the coworker’s actions and the way he thinks that people should behave at work. Dr. Marco is most likely working from what perspective?

(A) behavioral

(B) cognitive

(D) humanist

(E) social-cultural

5. The research methodology Wilhelm Wundt used is called

(A) introspection.

(B) structuralism.

(D) inferential.

(E) scientific.

6. Which of the following psychologists wrote the first psychology textbook?

(A) William James

(B) Wilhelm Wundt

(D) John Watson

(E) Albert Bandura

7.Which of the following psychologists was part of the Gestalt group of psychologists?

(A) Carl Rogers

(B) Wilhelm Wundt

(D) John B. Watson

(E) Max Wertheimer

8. Which of the following concepts is most integral to Sigmund Freud’s psychoanalytic theory?

(A) trephining

(B) structuralism

(D) the concept of Gestalt

(E) behaviorism

9. Sigmund Freud’s psychoanalytic theory has been criticized for being

(A) appropriate for female patients, but not male patients.

(B) only applicable to research settings, not therapy settings.

(D) unscientific and unverifiable.

(E) too closely tied to behavioristic thought.

10. John B. Watson relied on the pioneering work of ___________ in establishing behaviorism as a paradigm of psychology.

(A) B. F. Skinner

(B) Wilhelm Wundt

(D) Ivan Pavlov

(E) Sigmund Freud

11. B. F. Skinner introduced the idea of ___________ to the paradigm of behaviorism.

(A) unconscious thinking

(B) reinforcement

(D) defense mechanisms

(E) introspection

12. Which of the following psychologists might have described himself as a humanist?

(A) B. F. Skinner

(B) William James

(D) John Watson

(E) Ivan Pavlov

13. Symbolic dream analysis might be an important research technique to a psychologist from which of the following perspectives?

(A) behaviorist

(B) biopsychologist

(D) evolutionary

(E) structuralist

14. Behaviorists explain human thought and behavior as a result of

(A) past conditioning.

(B) unconscious behavioral impulses.

(D) biological processes.

(E) individual choice.

15. A therapist who says that she uses whatever psychological perspective “works best” for each patient might be best described as

(A) social-cultural.

(B) humanist.

(D) psychoanalytic.

(E) functionalist.

PRACTICE QUESTIONS

1. Psychologists generally prefer the experimental method to other research methods because

(A) experiments are more likely to support psychologists’ hypotheses.

(B) experiments can show cause-effect relationships.

(D) double-blind designs are unnecessary in an experiment.

(E) experiments are more likely to result in statistically significant findings.

2. Theoretically, random assignment should eliminate

(A) sampling error.

(B) the need to use statistics.

(D) many confounding variables.

(E) the need for a representative sample.

3. Charlotte and Tamar are lab partners assigned to research who is friendlier, girls or boys. After conversing with their first 10 participants, they find that their friendliness ratings often differ. With which of the following should they be most concerned?

(A) reliability

(B) confounding variables

(D) validity

(E) assignment

4. Which of the following hypotheses would be most difficult to test experimentally?

(A) People exposed to the color red will be more aggressive than those exposed to the color blue.

(B) Exercise improves mood.

(D) Studying leads to better grades.

(E) Divorce makes children more independent.

5. Professor Ma wants to design a project studying emotional response to date rape. He advertises for participants in the school newspaper, informs them about the nature of the study, gets their consent, conducts an interview, and debriefs them about the results when the experiment is over. If you were on the IRB, which ethical consideration would you most likely have the most concern about in Professor Ma’s study?

(A) coercion

(B) deception

(D) confidentiality

(E) clear scientific purpose

6. Some psychologists consider Stanley Milgram’s obedience studies to be unethical because of which ethical consideration?

(A) improper sampling procedure

(B) risk of long-term harm

(D) debriefing

(E) anonymity

7. One of the principal differences between the ethical guidelines for human and animal research is:

(A) Human participants can be deceived for experimental purposes and animals cannot.

(B) Animals can be placed at much greater physical risk than human participants can.

(D) If humans might physically suffer because of the study, the suffering must be minimal, in contrast to animal studies where any amount of suffering is ethical if it helps to further a clear scientific purpose.

(E) Environmental conditions for human studies must be monitored much more closely than they are in an animal study.

8. Lily scored 145 on an IQ test with a mean of 100 and a standard deviation of 15. What is her z score?

(A) –3

(B) –1.5

(D) 1.5

(E) +3

9. What is the median of the following distribution: 6, 2, 9, 4, 7, 3?

(A) 4

(B) 5

(D) 6

(E) 6.5

10. Emma scores a perfect 100 on a test that everyone else fails. If we were to graph this distribution, it would be
(A) symmetrical.

(B) normal.

(D) negatively skewed.

(E) a straight line.

11. José hypothesizes that a new drug he has just invented will enhance mice’s memories. He feeds the drug to the experimental group and gives the control group a placebo. He then times the mice as they learn to run through a maze. In order to know whether his hypothesis has been supported, José would need to use

(A) scatter plots.

(B) descriptive statistics.

(D) inferential statistics.

(E) means-end analysis.

12. Which of the following is an example of random sampling?

I. Picking out of a hat to assign each of three classes to an experimental condition.

II. Having a computer generate a random list of 100 high school students.

III. Approaching any 50 students during sixth-period lunch.

(A) I only

(B) II only

(D) I and II

(E) I, II, and III

13. Vincenzo conducts an experiment to see whether fear makes mice run through mazes faster. He first selected a sample of 60 mice and then divided them into a control group and an experimental group. Which cannot be a confounding variable?

(A) how fast the mice are at the start

(B) when the mice run the maze

(D) how frightened the mice are before the experiment

(E) where the mice run the maze

14. Olivia, a nursery school student, hypothesizes that boys have fights with the finger paints more than girls do. She tests her hypothesis by casually watching the finger-painting table for three days of nursery school. What method is she using?

(A) field experiment

(B) informal survey

(D) naturalistic observation

(E) ethnography

15. Talia collects survey data that indicate that students who spend more time preparing for the AP test tend to score better than other students. Jen can now conclude that

(A) studying improves exam grades.

(B) a relationship exists between studying and exam grades.

(D) anyone who does not study will do poorly on the exam.

(E) better students tend to study more.

PRACTICE QUESTIONS

1. Blindness could result from damage to which cortex and lobe of the brain?

(A) visual cortex in the frontal lobe

(B) visual cortex in the temporal lobe

(D) visual cortex in the occipital lobe

(E) cerebral cortex in the occipital lobe

2. Paralysis of the left arm might be explained by a problem in the

(A) motor cortex in the frontal lobe in the left hemisphere.

(B) motor cortex in the frontal lobe in the right hemisphere.

(D) motor cortex in the parietal lobe in the left hemisphere.

(E) motor cortex in the occipital lobe in the right hemisphere.

3. Deafness can result from damage to the inner ear or damage to what area of the brain?

(A) connections between the auditory nerve and the auditory cortex in the frontal lobe

(B) connections between the auditory nerve and the auditory cortex in the temporal lobe

(D) connections between the hypothalamus and the auditory cortex in the temporal lobe

(E) connections between the left and right sensory areas of the cerebellum

4. According to the theory of evolution, why might we call some parts of the brain the old brain and some parts the new brain?

(A) Old brain parts are what exist in very young children, and the new brain develops later.

(B) The old brain developed first according to evolution.

(D) The new brain deals with new information, while the old brain deals with information gathered when we were children.

(E) The old brain is most affected by age deterioration (dementias) while the new brain remains unaffected.

5. Which chemicals pass across the synaptic gap and increase the possibility the next neuron in the chain will fire?

(A) synaptic peptides

(B) inhibitory neurotransmitters

(D) excitatory neurotransmitters

(E) potassium and sodium

6. You eat some bad sushi and feel that you are slowly losing control over your muscles. The bacteria you ingested from the bad sushi most likely interferes with the use of

(A) serotonin.

(B) insulin.

(D) thorazine.

(E) adrenaline.

7. The three major categories researchers use to organize the entire brain are the

(A) old brain, new brain, and cerebral cortex.

(B) lower, middle, and upper brain.

(D) brain stem, limbic system, and cerebral cortex.

(E) neurons, synapses, and cerebral cortex.

8. A spinal reflex differs from a normal sensory and motor reaction in that

(A) a spinal reflex occurs only in response to extremely stressful stimuli.

(B) in a spinal reflex, the spine moves the muscles in response as soon as the sensory information reaches the spine, while usually the impulse must reach the brain before a response.

(C) in a normal sensory/motor reaction, the spine transmits the information through afferent nerve fibers, while reflex reactions are transmitted along special efferent nerves.

(D) spinal reflexes are part of the central nervous system response, while normal sensory/motor reactions are part of the peripheral nervous system.

(E) spinal reflexes occur only in animals because humans are born without instinctual responses.

9. Antidepressant drugs like Prozac are often used to treat mood disorders. According to what you know about their function, which neurotransmitter system do these types of drugs try to affect?

(A) serotonin

(B) adrenaline

(D) endorphins

(E) morphine

10. Which sentence most closely describes neural transmission?

(A) An electric charge is created in the neuron, the charge travels down the cell, and chemicals are released that cross the synapse to the next cell.

(B) A chemical change occurs within the cell, the change causes an electric charge to be produced, and the charge jumps the gap between the nerve cells.

(D) Neurotransmitters produced in the hindbrain are transmitted to the forebrain, causing electric changes in the cerebral cortex.

(E) Neural transmission is an electrochemical process both inside and outside the cell.

11. Dr. Dahab, a brain researcher, is investigating the connection between certain environmental stimuli and brain processes. Which types of brain scans is he most likely to use?

(A) MRI and CAT

(B) CAT and EKG

(D) EKG and CAT

(E) lesioning and MRI

12. Split-brain patients are unable to

(A) coordinate movements between their major and minor muscle groups.

(B) speak about information received exclusively in their right hemisphere.

(D) solve abstract problems involving integrating logical (left-hemisphere) and spatial (right-hemisphere) information.

(E) speak about information received exclusively through their left ear, left eye, or left side of their bodies.

13. When brain researchers refer to brain plasticity, they are talking about

(A) the brain’s ability to quickly regrow damaged neurons.

(B) the surface texture and appearance caused by the layer known as the cerebral cortex.

(D) our adaptability to different problems ranging from survival needs to abstract reasoning.

(E) new connections forming in the brain to take over for damaged sections.

14. Mr. Spam is a 39-year-old male who has been brought into your neurology clinic by his wife. She has become increasingly alarmed by her husband’s behavior over the last four months. You recommend a CAT scan to look for tumors in the brain. Which two parts of the brain would you predict are being affected by the tumors?
List of symptoms: vastly increased appetite, body temperature fluctuations, decreased sexual desire, jerky movements, poor balance when walking and standing, inability to throw objects, and exaggerated efforts to coordinate movements in a task

(A) motor cortex and emotion cortex

(B) somato-sensory cortex and hypothalamus

(D) cerebellum and medulla

(E) thalamus and motor cortex

15. In most people, which one of following is a specific function of the left hemisphere that is typically not controlled by the right hemisphere?

(A) producing speech

(B) control of the left hand

(D) hypothesis testing

(E) abstract reasoning

PRACTICE QUESTIONS

1. Agonists are psychoactive drugs that

(A) produce tolerance to the drug without the associated withdrawal symptoms.

(B) mimic and produce the same effect as certain neurotransmitters.

(D) enhance the effects of certain opiates like heroin.

(E) make recovery from physical addiction more difficult.

2. In comparison with older people, babies

(A) sleep more fitfully; they tend to wake up more often.

(B) sleep more deeply; they spend more time in stage 3 and 4 sleep.

(D) spend more time in stage 1, which causes them to awaken easily.

(E) sleep more than young adults, but less than people over 50.

3. Which of the following is the best analogy for how psychologists view consciousness?

(A) the on/off switch on a computer

(B) a circuit breaker that controls power to a house

(D) a dimmer switch for a light fixture

(E) the ignition switch on a car

4. During a normal night’s sleep, how many times do we pass through the different stages of sleep?

(A) 2

(B) 2–3

(D) 8–11

(E) 11–15

5. Deep or slow wave sleep is associated with which type(s) of brain waves?

(A) alpha.

(B) beta.

(D) alpha and beta.

(E) beta and delta.

6. Activation-synthesis theory tries to explain

(A) how consciousness emerges out of neural firings.

(B) how psychoactive drugs create euphoric effects.

(D) how our mind awakens us after we pass through all the sleep stages.

(E) how our consciousness synthesizes all the sensory information it receives.

7. Which of the following tends to increase during a typical night’s sleep in an adult?

(A) night terrors

(B) deep sleep

(D) dreaming

(E) sleeptalking

8. Which of the following two sleep disorders occur most commonly?

(A) insomnia and narcolepsy

(B) apnea and narcolepsy

(D) somnambulism and insomnia

(E) apnea and insomnia

9. Marijuana falls under what category of psychoactive drug?

(A) depressant

(B) mood elevator

(D) stimulant

(E) mood depressant

10. Night terrors and somnambulism usually occur during which stage of sleep?

(A) stage 1, close to wakefulness

(B) REM sleep

(D) stage 4

(E) sleep onset

11. Which neurotransmitter is affected by opiates?

(A) serotonin

(B) endorphins

(D) GABA

(E) acetylcholine

12. In the context of this unit, the term tolerance refers to

(A) treatment of psychoactive drug addicts by peers and other members of society.

(B) the amount of sleep a person needs to function normally.

(D) the labeling of individuals automatically produced by the level of our consciousness.

(E) the harmful side effects of psychoactive drugs.

13. The information-processing theory says that dreams

(A) are meaningless by-products of how our brains process information during REM sleep.

(B) are symbolic representations of the information we encode during the day.

(D) occur during REM sleep as the brain deals with daily stress and events.

(E) occur only after stressful events, explaining why some people never dream.

14. Which level of consciousness controls involuntary body processes?

(A) preconscious level

(B) subconscious level

(D) autonomic level

(E) nonconscious level

15. Professor Bohkle shows a group of participants a set of geometric shapes for a short period of time. Later, Professor Bohkle shows the same group a larger set of shapes that includes the first set of geometric shapes randomly distributed among the other new images. When asked which shapes they prefer, the participants choose shapes from the first group more often than the new images, even though they cannot remember which images they had seen previously. This experiment demonstrates which concept?

(A) priming

(B) mere-exposure effect

(D) fundamental-attribution error

(E) primacy

PRACTICE QUESTIONS

1. Our sense of smell may be a powerful trigger for memories because

(A) we are conditioned from birth to make strong connections between smells and events.

(B) the nerve connecting the olfactory bulb sends impulses directly to the limbic system.

(D) smell is a powerful cue for encoding memories into long-term memory.

(E) strong smells encourage us to process events deeply so they will most likely be remembered.

2. The cochlea is responsible for

(A) protecting the surface of the eye.

(B) transmitting vibrations received by the eardrum to the hammer, anvil, and stirrup.

(D) coordinating impulses from the rods and cones in the retina.

(E) sending messages to the brain about orientation of the head and body.

3. In a perception research lab, you are asked to describe the shape of the top of a box as the box is slowly rotated. Which concept are the researchers most likely investigating?

(A) feature detectors in the retina

(B) feature detectors in the occipital lobe

(D) binocular depth cues

(E) shape constancy

4. The blind spot in our eye results from

(A) the lack of receptors at the spot where the optic nerve connects to the retina.

(B) the shadow the pupil makes on the retina.

(D) floating debris in the space between the lens and the retina.

(E) retinal damage from bright light.

5. Smell and taste are called __________ because __________

(A) energy senses; they send impulses to the brain in the form of electric energy.

(B) chemical senses; they detect chemicals in what we taste and smell.

(D) chemical senses; they send impulses to the brain in the form of chemicals.

(E) memory senses; they both have powerful connections to memory.

6. What is the principal difference between amplitude and frequency in the context of sound waves?

(A) Amplitude is the tone or timbre of a sound, whereas frequency is the pitch.

(B) Amplitude is detected in the cochlea, whereas frequency is detected in the auditory cortex.

(C) Amplitude is the height of the sound wave, whereas frequency is a measure of how frequently the sound waves pass a given point.

(D) Both measure qualities of sound, but frequency is a more accurate measure since it measures the shapes of the waves rather than the strength of the waves.

(E) Frequency is a measure for light waves, whereas amplitude is a measure for sound waves.

7. Weber’s law determines

(A) absolute threshold.

(B) focal length of the eye.

(D) amplitude of sound waves.

(E) just-noticeable difference.

8. Gate-control theory refers to

(A) which sensory impulses are transmitted first from each sense.

(B) which pain messages are perceived.

(D) the gate at the optic chiasm controlling the destination hemisphere for visual information from each eye.

(E) how our minds choose to use either bottom-up or top-down processing.

9. If you had sight in only one eye, which of the following depth cues could you NOT use?

(A) texture gradient

(B) convergence

(D) interposition

(E) shading

10. Which of the following sentences best describes the relationship between sensation and perception?

(A) Sensation is a strictly mechanical process, whereas perception is a cognitive process.

(B) Perception is an advanced form of sensation.

(D) Sensation is detecting stimuli, perception is interpreting stimuli detected.

(E) Sensation involves learning and expectations, and perception does not.

11. What function does the retina serve?

(A) The retina contains the visual receptor cells that transform light into neural impulses.

(B) The retina focuses light coming in the eye through the lens.

(D) The retina determines which parts of the brain incoming light will be sent to.

(E) The retina connects the two optic nerves and sends impulses to the left and right visual cortices.

12. Color blindness and color afterimages are best explained by what theory of color vision?

(A) trichromatic theory

(B) visible hue theory

(D) dichromatic theory

(E) binocular disparity theory

13. You are shown a picture of your grandfather’s face, but the eyes and mouth are blocked out. You still recognize it as a picture of your grandfather. Which type of processing best explains this example of perception?

(A) bottom-up processing

(B) signal detection theory

(D) opponent-process theory

(E) gestalt replacement theory

14. What behavior would be difficult without our vestibular sense?

(A) integrating what we see and hear

(B) writing our name

(D) walking a straight line with our eyes closed

(E) reporting to a researcher the exact position and orientation of our limbs

15. Which of the following sentences best describes the relationship between culture and perception?

(A) Our perceptual rules are inborn and not affected by culture.

(B) Perceptual rules are culturally based, so rules that apply to one culture rarely apply to another.

(D) Slight variations in sensory apparatuses among cultures create slight differences in perception.

(E) The processes involved in perception are genetically based, so genetic differences among cultures affect perception.

PRACTICE QUESTIONS

1. Just before something scary happens in a horror film, they often play scary-sounding music. When I hear the music, I tense up in anticipation of the scary event. In this situation, the music serves as a(n)

(A) US.

(B) CS.

(D) CR.

(E) NR.

2. Try as you might, you are unable to teach your dog to do a somersault. He will roll around on the ground, but he refuses to execute the gymnastic move you desire because of

(A) equipotentiality.

(B) preparedness.

(D) chaining.

(E) shaping.

3. Which of the following is an example of a generalized reinforcer?

(A) chocolate cake

(B) water

(D) applause

(E) high grades

4. In teaching your cat to jump through a hoop, which reinforcement schedule would facilitate the most rapid learning?

(A) continuous

(B) fixed ratio

(D) fixed interval

(E) variable interval

5. The classical conditioning training procedure in which the US is presented before the CS is known as

(A) backward conditioning.

(B) aversive conditioning.

(D) delayed conditioning.

(E) trace conditioning.

6. Tina likes to play with slugs, but she can find them by the shed only after it rains. On what kind of reinforcement schedule is Tina’s slug hunting?

(A) continuous

(B) fixed-interval

(D) variable-interval

(E) variable-ratio

7. Just before the doors of the elevator close, Lola, a coworker you despise, enters the elevator. You immediately leave, mumbling about having forgotten something. Your behavior results in

(A) positive reinforcement.

(B) a secondary reinforcer.

(D) negative reinforcement.

(E) omission training.

8. Which of the following phenomena is illustrated by Tolman’s study in which rats suddenly evidenced that they had learned to get through a maze once a reward was presented?

(A) insight learning

(B) instrumental learning

(D) spontaneous recovery

(E) classical conditioning

9. Many psychologists believe that children of parents who beat them are likely to beat their own children. One common explanation for this phenomenon is

(A) modeling.

(B) latent learning.

(D) instrumental learning.

(E) classical conditioning.

10. When Tito was young, his parents decided to give him a quarter every day he made his bed. Tito started to make his siblings’ beds also and help with other chores. Behaviorists would say that Tito was experiencing

(A) internal motivation.

(B) spontaneous recovery.

(D) generalization.

(E) discrimination.

11. A rat evidencing abstract learning might learn

(A) to clean and feed itself by watching its mother perform these activities.

(B) to associate its handler’s presence with feeding time.

(D) the layout of a maze without hurrying to get to the end.

(E) to press a lever when he sees pictures of dogs but not cats.

12. With which statement would B. F. Skinner most likely agree?

(A) Pavlov’s dog learned to expect that food would follow the bell.

(B) Baby Albert thought the white rat meant the loud noise would sound.

(D) Pigeons peck disks knowing that they will receive food.

(E) Cognition plays an important role in learning.

13. Before his parents will read him a bedtime story, Charley has to brush his teeth, put on his pajamas, kiss his grandmother good night, and put away his toys. This example illustrates

(A) shaping.

(B) acquisition.

(D) chaining.

(E) a token economy.

14. Which of the following is an example of positive reinforcement?

(A) buying a child a video game after she throws a tantrum

(B) going inside to escape a thunderstorm

(D) getting a cavity filled at the dentist to halt a toothache

(E) depriving a prison inmate of sleep

15. Lily keeps poking Jared in Mr. Clayton’s third-grade class. Mr. Clayton tells Jared to ignore Lily. Mr. Clayton is hoping that ignoring Lily’s behavior will

(A) punish her.

(B) extinguish the behavior.

(D) cause Lily to generalize.

(E) make the behavior latent.

PRACTICE QUESTIONS

1. Mr. Krohn, a carpenter, is frustrated because he misplaced his hammer and needs to pound in the last nail in the bookcase he is building. He overlooks the fact that he could use the tennis trophy sitting above the workbench to pound in the nail. Which concept best explains why Mr. Krohn overlooked the trophy?

(A) representativeness heuristic

(B) retrieval

(D) belief bias

(E) divergent thinking

2. Phonemes and morphemes refer to

(A) elements of telegraphic speech toddlers use.

(B) elements of language.

(D) basic elements of memories stored in long-term memory.

(E) two types of influences language has on thought according to the linguistic relativity hypothesis.

3. Which example would be better explained by the levels of processing model than the information-processing model?

(A) Someone says your name across the room and you switch your attention away from the conversation you are having.

(B) You forget part of a list you were trying to memorize for a test.

(D) You are able to remember verbatim a riddle you worked on for a few days before you figured out the answer.

(E) You pay less attention to the smell of your neighbor’s cologne than to the professor’s lecture in your college class.

4. Contrary to what Whorf’s linguistic relativity hypothesis originally predicted, what effect does recent research indicate language has on the way we think?

(A) Since we think in language, the language we understand limits what we have the ability to think about.

(B) Language is a tool of thought but does not limit our cognition.

(D) The words in each language affect our ability to think because we are restricted to the words each language uses.

(E) The linguistic relativity hypothesis predicts that how quickly we acquire language correlates with our cognitive ability.

5. Which of the following is an example of the use of the representativeness heuristic?

(A) judging that a young person is more likely to be the instigator of an argument than an older person because you believe younger people are more likely to start fights

(B) breaking a math story problem down into smaller, representative parts, in order to solve it

(D) solving a problem with a rule that guarantees the right, more representative, answer

(E) making a judgment according to past experiences that are most easily recalled, therefore representative of experience

6. Which of the following is the most complete list of elements in the three-box/information-processing model?

(A) sensory memory, constructive memory, working memory, and long-term memory

(B) short-term memory, working memory, and long-term memory

(D) sensory memory, encoding, working memory, and retrieval

(E) sensory memory, working memory, encoding, long-term memory, and retrieval

7. Which of the following is an effective method for testing whether a memory is actually true or whether it is a constructed memory?

(A) checking to see whether it was deeply processed or shallowly processed

(B) testing to see if the memory was encoded from sensory memory into working memory

(D) using other evidence, such as written records, to substantiate the memory

(E) there is no way to tell the difference between a true memory and a constructed one

8. One of the ways memories are physically stored in the brain is by what process?

(A) deep processing, which increases levels of neurotransmitters in the hippocampus

(B) encoding, which stimulates electric activity in the hippocampus

(D) selective attention, which increases myelination of memory neurons

(E) rehearsal, which causes the brain to devote more neurons to what is being rehearsed

9. According to the nativist theory, language is acquired

(A) by parents reinforcing correct language use.

(B) using an inborn ability to learn language at a certain developmental stage.

(D) only if formal language instruction is provided in the child’s native language.

(E) best through the phonics instructional method, because children retain how to pronounce all the phonemes required for the language.

10. According to the three-box/information-processing model, stimuli from our outside environment is first stored in

(A) working memory.

(B) the hippocampus.

(D) sensory memory.

(E) selective attention.

11. Which of the following is the best example of the use of the availability heuristic?

(A) judging a situation by a rule that is usually, but not always, true

(B) making a judgment according to past experiences that are most easily recalled

(D) making a judgment according to what is usually true in your experience

(E) solving a problem by breaking it into more easily available parts

12. Which sentence most accurately describes sensory memory?

(A) Sensory memory stores all sensory input perfectly accurately for a short period of time.

(B) Sensory memory encodes only sensations we are attending to at the time.

(D) Sensory memory records all incoming sensations and remembers them indefinitely.

(E) Sensory memory records some sensations accurately, but some are recorded incorrectly, leading to constructive memory.

13. Recall is a more difficult process than recognition because

(A) memories retrieved by recognition are held in working memory, and recalled memories are in long-term memory.

(B) memories retrieved by recognition are more deeply processed.

(D) memories retrieved by recognition are more recent than memories retrieved by recall.

(E) the process of recognition involves matching a person, event, or object with something already in memory.

14. Which of the following would be the best piece of evidence for the nativist theory of language acquisition?

(A) a child who acquires language at an extremely early age through intense instruction by her or his parents

(B) statistical evidence that children in one culture learn language faster than children in another culture

(D) a child skipping the babbling and telegraphic speech stages of language acquisition

(E) a child deprived of language at an early age successfully learning language later

15. A friend mentions to you that she heard humans never forget anything; we remember everything that ever happens to us. What concept from memory research most directly contradicts this belief?

(A) sensory memory

(B) selective attention

(D) constructive memory

(E) recovered memory
PRACTICE QUESTIONS

1. Paul takes a test in the army to see if he would make a good pilot. Such a test is a (an)

(A) standardized test.

(B) aptitude test.

(D) achievement test.

(E) biased test.

2. If a test is reliable, it means that it

(A) is given in the same way every time.

(B) tests what it is supposed to test.

(D) yields consistent results.

(E) is also valid.

3. The standardization sample is

(A) the group of people who take the test.

(B) a random sample of the test takers used to evaluate the performance of others.

(D) all the people who might ever take the test.

(E) the top 15 percent of scores on the test.

4. Which of the following is not one of Howard Gardner’s multiple intelligences?

(A) practical

(B) musical

(D) spatial

(E) linguistic

5. Mrs. Cho is careful to make sure that she fairly represents the whole year’s work on the final exam for her American literature class. If Mrs. Cho achieves this goal, her test will have

(A) test-retest reliability.

(B) construct validity.

(D) split-half reliability.

(E) criterion validity.

6. Astor scores at the 84th percentile on the WISC. Which number most closely expresses his IQ?

(A) 85

(B) 110

(D) 120

(E) 130

7. Spearman argued that intelligence could be boiled down to one ability known as

(A) s.

(B) i.

(D) a.

(E) x.

8. Which of the following would provide the strongest evidence for the idea that intelligence is highly heritable?

(A) The IQ scores of parents are positively correlated with the scores of their children.

(B) Monozygotic twins separated at birth have extremely similar IQ scores.

(D) Adopted children’s IQ scores are positively correlated with their adopted parents’ scores.

(E) Different ethnic groups have different average IQ scores.

9. Which is the best example of crystallized intelligence?

(A) Tino uses his exceptional vocabulary to excel at Scrabble.

(B) Susan quickly learns to use a computerized statistics program for her class.

(D) Arjun changes jobs and adapts to the demands of the new environment.

(E) Kevin is able to perform complex mathematical calculations in his head.

10. Which statement is true of power tests?

(A) They are administered in a short amount of time.

(B) They are an example of an individual test.

(D) They consist of items of varying difficulty levels.

(E) They yield IQ scores.

11. People with high EQs would be likely to

(A) pursue high-paying occupations.

(B) complete college.

(D) be creative problem solvers.

(E) have a lot of close friends.

12. Although her score on the personality test indicated that Mary was devoid of social grace, painfully shy, and frightened of other people, she is extremely popular and outgoing. This personality test lacks

(A) reliablity.

(B) standardization.

(D) validity.

(E) practical worth.

13.Santos is 8 years old and, according to the Stanford-Binet, he has a mental age of 10. What is his IQ?

(A) 80

(B) 100

(D) 125

(E) 150

14.The Flynn effect is the finding that

(A) intelligence seems to increase with every generation.

(B) television has decreased intellectual performance.

(D) within-group differences are larger than between-group differences.

(E) the more times people take a test, the better they tend to score.

15. Desmond believes that nature is far more important in shaping personality than nurture. Desmond probably believes in the strong influence of

(A) environment.

(B) learning.

(D) genetics.

(E) culture.

PRACTICE QUESTIONS

1. Some researchers consider developmental psychology an applied research topic because

(A) it is more easily applied to people’s lives than research such as behaviorism.

(B) researchers apply findings and theories from other areas of psychology to the specific topic of human development.

(C) it is more commonly studied by a graduate student rather than an undergraduate because of the applications for other research.

(D) doing original research in this area is difficult, so most of the research is about application.

(E) pure research is difficult to gain support for, especially when a researcher needs to recruit children as participants.

2. You read in your philosophy class textbook that humans are born “tabula rasa” or “blank slates.” As a student of psychology, which of the following responses would you have?

(A) The statement is incorrect. Humans may be born without reflexes and instincts, but we are born with the ability to learn them.

(B) The statement is correct. Humans are born without instincts or other mechanisms in place to help us survive.

(D) The statement is incorrect. Humans are born with a set of reflexes that help us survive.

(E) The statement is impossible to prove since we cannot infer what babies know or do not know due to their lack of language.

3. Which of the following statements is most true about how a newborn’s senses function?

(A) A newborn’s senses function the same as an adult’s since the sensory apparatus develops in the womb.

(B) All of our senses function normally when we are newborns except taste due to lack of stimulation in the womb.

(D) A newborn’s senses function at a very low level but develop very quickly with experience.

(E) Most senses function normally, but sight develops slowly with experience.

4. Most prenatal influences on humans are genetic or hormonal in origin except for

(A) teratogens.

(B) stress on the mother.

(D) family history of mental illness.

(E) operant conditioning occurring before birth.

5. Parental involvement can have dramatic effects on all the following human traits except

(A) intelligence.

(B) reading ability.

(D) motor development.

(E) emotional development.

6. A principal difference between a longitudinal study and a cross-sectional study is the

(A) number of participants involved.

(B) developmental stage of the participants.

(D) statistical methods employed to evaluate the data.

(E) sampling method used to choose participants.

7. Harlow’s experiments with substitute mothers made of wire demonstrated the importance of what aspect of nurturing?

(A) feeding

(B) responsiveness to needs

(D) touch

(E) stranger anxiety

8. According to research, the most advantageous parenting style for children’s development is

(A) authoritarian, because children learn boundaries quickly and appreciate consistency.

(B) permissive, because young children need to explore the environment more than they need guidelines for behavior.

(D) securely attached, because children are confident parents will meet their needs.

(E) authoritative, because children have boundaries that are reasonable and justified.

9. A major difference between the psychoanalytic stage theories (Freud and Erikson) and the more cognitive or experiential stage theories (Piaget and Kohlberg) is

(A) the psychoanalytic theories are less empirical.

(B) the psychoanalytic theories were based exclusively on data from children with developmental disorders.

(D) only the psychoanalytic theories take parental effects into account.

(E) the psychoanalytic theories are continuous, the others are discontinuous.

10. You have a cousin named Holden who flunked out of three expensive private schools and was arrested for wandering the streets of New York using his parents’ credit card. Holden is intelligent but cannot seem to get motivated toward any career. What conflict would Erikson say Holden is struggling with?

(A) autonomy versus authority

(B) identity versus role confusion

(D) industry versus inferiority

(E) trust versus isolation

11. In which stage of cognitive development do infants learn object permanence?

(A) preoperational

(B) formal-operations

(D) sensorimotor

(E) conventional

12. According to Erikson’s theory, adolescents are most primarily concerned in a search for

(A) career.

(B) identity.

(D) autonomy.

(E) archetypes.

13. The ability to generate several alternate hypotheses in order to explain a phenomenon demonstrates cognition in which of the following Piagetian stages?

(A) operational

(B) hypothetical-operations

(D) formal-operations

(E) abstract reasoning

14. Which of the following attachment styles did Mary Ainsworth find most often in her research (in about 66 percent of the cases she studied)?

(A) avoidant

(B) authoritarian

(D) anxious/ambivalent

(E) authoritative

15. Which of the following is the correct term for a mental rule Piaget said we use to interpret our environment?

(A) schema

(B) syllogism

(D) accommodation

(E) hypothesis

PRACTICE QUESTIONS

1. How would drive reduction theory explain a person accepting a new job with a higher salary but that requires more work and responsibility?

(A) Money is a more powerful incentive for this individual than free time.

(B) This person seeks a higher activity level and takes the job in order to satisfy this drive.

(D) The person takes the job to satisfy the secondary drive of increased salary.

(E) Humans instinctively seek greater resources and control over their environment.

2. Which aspects of hunger are controlled by the lateral and ventromedial hypothalamus?

(A) contraction and expansion of the stomach, indicating too much or too little food

(B) body temperature and desire to eat

(C) desire to eat and physiological processes needed for eating and digestion (such as salivation)(D) the binge and purge cycle in bulimics

(E) the desire to eat and the feeling of satiety, or fullness, that makes us stop eating

3. All of the following are identified by researchers as important factors in the causes of eating disorders EXCEPT

(A) cultural attitude toward weight.

(B) lack of willpower.

(D) family history of eating disorders.

(E) food obsessions.

4. The Yerkes-Dodson law predicts that most people would perform an easy task best if they are at a

(A) high level of arousal.

(B) low level of arousal.

(D) level of self-actualization.

(E) state of homeostasis.

5. What is the principal difference between how achievement motivation theory and arousal theory explain human motivation?

(A) Achievement motivation is a specific example of arousal motivation.

(B) Arousal theory describes the optimum level of general arousal an individual seeks, while achievement motivation describes what type of goals the individual is motivated to achieve.

(C) Arousal theory describes motivation by referring to stages in our responses to stress (the general adaptation syndrome), while achievement motivation is not used to describe motivation due to stress.

(D) A person with a low optimum level of arousal according to arousal theory would have a high achievement motivation.

(E) Arousal theory is an older, outdated precursor to achievement motivation theory.

6. Which of the following are reasons why intrinsic motivation might be more advantageous than extrinsic motivation?

(A) Intrinsic motivation might be more enduring since extrinsic motivations are usually temporary.

(B) Intrinsic motivations are easier and more convenient to provide.

(C) Intrinsic motivations are higher on Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, so we are motivated to meet them before extrinsic needs.

(D) Intrinsic motivations are more likely to be primary drives. Extrinsic motivations are secondary drives.

(E) Intrinsic motivations are more effective with a wider range of individuals.

7. Which sentence most closely describes the difference between theory X and theory Y types of management?

(A) Theory X managers are more active in work groups. Theory Y managers are more hands-off, letting groups work out problems on their own.

(B) The management theories differ in regard to what tasks they delegate to workers.

(C) Theory Y managers regard employees as intrinsically motivated. Theory X managers see them as extrinsically motivated.

(D) Management theory X is dominant in collectivist cultures. Theory Y is more prevalent in individualist cultures.

(E) Theory Y is used with workers who have high optimum levels of arousal. Theory X is used with those whose arousal levels are low.

8. What does Schachter’s two-factor theory state about the relationship between emotion and physiological reaction?

(A) Emotions are caused by physiological reactions. For example, we feel excited because our heart begins to race.

(B) Physiological reactions are caused by emotions. For example, our experience of fear causes our breathing rate to increase.

(D) Physiological reactions and emotional response occur simultaneously.

(E) Cognitive emotions occur independently of physiological states and are unrelated.

9. Excessive time spent in the resistance phase of Selye’s general adaptation syndrome can contribute to

(A) increased time needed to adapt to new emotional situations.

(B) decreased motivation to perform novel tasks.

(D) a reduction in the drive to achieve goals.

(E) resistance to learning skills needed for novel tasks.

10. Perceived control over a stressful event tends to result in

(A) less reported stress.

(B) more frustration regarding the stressful event.

(D) increased arousal.

(E) higher heart and respiration rates.

11. The balanced physiological state we are driven to attain by satisfying our needs is called

(A) equilibrium.

(B) homeostasis.

(D) primary satisfaction.

(E) secondary satisfaction.

12. The Garcia effect describes

(A) the increased motivation felt by individuals with high levels of arousal.

(B) the increased susceptibility to illness experienced in the exhaustion phase of the stress response.

(D) the effect of a theory Y management style.

(E) the effect the hypothalamus has on perceiving hunger.

13. Which of the following factors does research indicate may influence sexual orientation?

(A) parenting styles

(B) degree of masculinity or femininity expressed in childhood

(D) genetic influences

(E) being raised by homosexual parents

14. Selye’s general adaptation syndrome describes

(A) how the central nervous system processes emotions.

(B) the effect of low levels of arousal on emotion.

(D) our reactions to the different levels of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs.

(E) the sexual response cycle in humans.

15. A high score on Holmes and Rahe’s social readjustment rating scale correlates with

(A) high optimum levels of arousal.

(B) level of need reduction.

(D) incidence of stress-related illness.

(E) levels of perceived control.

PRACTICE QUESTIONS

1. According to Freud, which part of the mind acts as a person’s conscience?

(A) Eros

(B) ego

(D) superego

(E) id

2. Cettina fills out a personality inventory several times over the course of one year. The results of each administration of the test are extremely different. Cettina’s situation suggests that this personality inventory may not be

(A) reliable.

(B) standardized.

(D) projective.

(E) fair.

3. Which approach toward personality is the least deterministic?

(A) psychoanalytic

(B) humanistic

(D) behaviorist

(E) biological

4. One of your classmates remarks that “Mary is all id.” What does she likely mean?

(A) Mary uses a lot of defense mechanisms.

(B) Mary is a highly ethical person.

(D) Mary frequently pursues immediate gratification.

(E) Mary is in constant conflict over the proper course of action to take.

5. The belief that personality is created by the interaction between a person, his or her behavior, and the environment is known as

(A) combination theory.

(B) interactionist perspective.

(D) mutuality.

(E) circular creation.

6. Juan has a huge crush on Sally, but he never admits it. Instead, he tells all who will listen that Sally is really “into him.” Psychoanalysts would see Juan’s bragging as an example of

(A) displacement.

(B) reaction formation.

(D) denial.

(E) projection.

7. Dr. Li asks her clients to interpret ambiguous pictures of people in various settings. The method she is using is called

(A) the Rorschach test.

(B) the MMPI.

(D) factor analysis.

(E) the WISC.

8. One personality trait that is thought to be highly heritable is

(A) generosity.

(B) sense of humor.

(D) introversion.

(E) diligence.

9. Humanistic psychologists assert that people are motivated to self-actualize. Which of the following statements best describes the meaning of this term?

(A) accepting themselves the way they are

(B) encouraging others to pursue their dreams

(D) trying to achieve their full potential

(E) bringing their actions into line with their desires

10. Which is NOT one of the big five personality traits?

(A) extraversion

(B) openness

(D) honesty

(E) conscientiousness

11. Feminist psychoanalytic critics of Freud most commonly argue that

(A) there is no proof that the unconscious exists.

(B) Freud devoted too much attention to childhood.

(D) men and women use different defense mechanisms.

(E) while women all suffer from penis envy, men all suffer from womb envy.

12. Jamal sucked his thumb until age eight. As an adult, he smokes, chews gum, and thinks constantly of food. Psychoanalysts would describe Jamal as having a (an)

(A) obsession.

(B) orally controlled libido.

(D) oral fixation.

(E) mother complex.

13. Someone who has an external locus of control is likely to have a

(A) positive self-concept.

(B) high sense of self-efficacy.

(D) belief in luck.

(E) high IQ.

14. What kind of psychologist would be most likely to use a projective personality assessment?

(A) social cognitive

(B) trait

(D) humanistic

(E) psychoanalytic

15. Redirecting one’s unacceptable urges into more socially acceptable pursuits best defines which of the following defense mechanisms?

(A) intellectualization

(B) denial

(D) rationalization

(E) regression

PRACTICE QUESTIONS

1. According to the DSM-5, which of the following is an anxiety disorder?

(A) obsessive-compulsive disorder

(B) conversion disorder

(D) post-traumatic stress disorder

(E) panic disorder

2. All schizophrenics suffer from

(A) depression.

(B) multiple personalities.

(D) distorted thinking.

(E) delusions of persecution.

3. Juan hears voices that tell him to kill people. Juan is experiencing

(A) delusions.

(B) obsessions.

(D) hallucinations.

(E) compulsions.

4. Linda’s neighbors describe her as typically shy and mild mannered. She seems to be a devoted wife and mother to her husband and three children. Unbeknown to these neighbors, Linda sometimes dresses up in flashy, revealing clothing and goes to bars to pick up strange men. At such times, she is boisterous and overbearing. She tells everyone she meets that her name is Jen. At other times, when she is upset, Linda slips into childlike behavior and responds only to the name Sally. Linda is suffering from a

(A) schizophrenic disorder.

(B) mood disorder.

(D) somatic symptom disorder.

(E) psychosexual disorder.

5. The DSM containsI. a description of the symptoms of mental disorders.II. a description of the likely causes of all mental disorders.III. recommended methods of treatment for mental disorders.

(A) I only

(B) II only

(D) I and II

(E) I, II, and III

6. All of the following are biomedical explanations for schizophrenia EXCEPT

(A) double binds.

(B) brain asymmetries.

(D) a genetic predisposition.

(E) enlarged brain ventricles.

7. Psychologists who draw from several different theoretical perspectives rather than strictly following one are known as

(A) open-minded.

(B) mixed.

(D) eclectic.

(E) broad.

8. Depression is associated with low levels of

(A) acetylcholine.

(B) epinephrine.

(D) dopamine.

(E) GABA.

9. “I am the most important person in the world” is a statement that might characterize the views of someone with which of the following personality disorders?

(A) schizoid

(B) antisocial

(D) dependent

(E) narcissistic

10. What kind of psychologist would be most likely to describe depression as the result of an unconscious process in which anger is turned inward?

(A) biomedical

(B) psychoanalytic

(D) behavioral

(E) sociocultural

11. Women in the United States have a higher rate of depression than do men. Which kind of psychologist would be most likely to explain this higher incidence in terms of the pressures and prejudices that women suffer?

(A) humanistic

(B) psychoanalytic

(D) behavioral

(E) sociocultural

12.The relationship between schizophrenia and Parkinson’s disease is that

(A) both are caused by too little dopamine.

(B) both are treated by antipsychotic drugs.

(D) schizophrenia is associated with too much dopamine and Parkinson’s with too little.

(E) Parkinson’s is associated with too much dopamine and schizophrenia with too little.

13. Anand is unable to move his right arm. He has been to scores of physicians seeking a cure, but none have been able to find any physiological reason for his paralysis. Anand may be suffering from

(A) conversion disorder.

(B) dissociative amnesia.

(D) SAD.

(E) OCD.

14. Reni is sexually aroused by shoes. Reni might be diagnosed as having

(A) pedophilia.

(B) masochism.

(D) exhibitionism.

(E) fetishism.

15.Which statement about bulimia is true?

(A) Only women suffer from this disorder.

(B) All bulimics use vomiting to rid their bodies of unwanted calories.

(D) The sole cause of bulimia is society’s emphasis on thinness.

(E) Bulimics tend to be overly concerned with their weight and body image.

PRACTICE QUESTIONS

1. Which kind of therapist is most likely to analyze a client’s dreams?

(A) behaviorist

(B) cognitive

(D) psychoanalytic

(E) biomedical

2. Coretta’s therapist says little during their sessions and never makes any recommendations about what Coretta ought to do. What kind of therapy does Coretta’s therapist most likely practice?

(A) psychodynamic

(B) behavioral

(D) biomedical

(E) humanistic

3. Craig saw a behaviorist to treat his crippling test anxiety. After a few months, Craig no longer experiences any fear when taking tests, however he has developed an obsessive-compulsive disorder. According to psychoanalysts, Craig is experiencing

(A) free association.

(B) symptom substitution.

(D) problem transference.

(E) interpretation.

4. Systematic desensitization is to in vivo desensitization as

(A) flooding is to aversion therapy.

(B) modeling is to implosive therapy.

(D) implosive therapy is to flooding.

(E) implosive therapy is to in vivo implosive therapy.

5. At his last appointment with his therapist, Ivan explained that since he lost his job he has felt completely worthless and depressed. Which of the following statements would a strictly cognitive therapist be most likely to say?

(A) “Tell me about your recent dreams.”

(B) “I’m going to give you a homework assignment to do three things that you used to enjoy.”

(E) “What is your earliest childhood memory?”

6. Which process involves counterconditioning?

(A) REBT

(B) ECT

(D) somatic therapy

(E) systematic desensitization

7. Which of the following is used as a somatic therapy for depression?

(A) MAO inhibitors

(B) client-centered therapy

(D) dream analysis

(E) free association

8. All of the following methods of treatment are or may be based on classical conditioning principles EXCEPT

(A) token economy.

(B) implosive therapy.

(D) systematic desensitization.

(E) aversion therapy.

9. Maria has been in analysis for over a year. Recently, she has begun to suspect that she has fallen in love with Dr. Chin, her analyst. When she confesses her feelings, Dr. Chin is likely to tell Maria that she is experiencing

(A) resistance.

(B) transference.

(D) irrational expectations.

(E) unconditional positive regard.

10. Jeb has been working for the same company for three years. While his responsibilities have increased, his salary has not. Every time he resolves to talk with his supervisor about a raise, he loses his nerve. In therapy, Dr. Flores and her assistant demonstrate how Jeb might go about asking for a raise. Then the assistant pretends to be Jeb’s boss, and Jeb practices asking for a raise. This process most closely resembles

(A) REBT.

(B) existential therapy.

(D) free association.

(E) aversion therapy.

11. One difference between psychoanalytic and cognitive modes of treatment is that cognitive therapists

(A) say little during sessions.

(B) emphasize the primacy of behavior.

(D) view repressed thoughts about one’s childhood as the root of most problems.

(E) do not face their clients.

12. Which method of therapy is most eclectic?

(A) psychodynamic

(B) client-centered

(D) psychoanalytic

(E) token economy

13. Schizophrenia is most likely to be treated with

(A) Prozac.

(B) lithium.

(D) Haldol.

(E) Valium.

14. A common side effect of ECT is

(A) tardive dyskinesia.

(B) memory loss.

(D) hysteria.

(E) violent episodes.

15. An unanticipated result of the deinstitutionalization movement was a (an)

(A) increase in the homeless population.

(B) increase in drug-related crime.

(D) decrease in the availability of antipsychotic drugs.

(E) decrease in the population of mental institutions.

PRACTICE QUESTIONS

1. Which of the following suggestions is most likely to reduce the hostility felt between antagonistic groups?

(A) force the groups to spend a lot of time together

(B) encourage the groups to avoid each other as much as possible

(D) set up a program in which speakers attempt to persuade the groups to get along

(E) punish the groups whenever they treat each other badly

2. On Monday, Tanya asked her teacher to postpone Tuesday’s test until Friday. After her teacher flatly refused, Tanya asked the teacher to push the test back one day, to Wednesday. Tanya is using the compliance strategy known as

(A) foot-in-the-door.

(B) norms of reciprocity.

(D) strategic bargaining.

(E) door-in-the-face.

3. In the Milgram studies, the dependent measure was the

(A) highest level of shock supposedly administered.

(B) location of the learner.

(D) number of people in the group.

(E) instructions given by the experimenter.

4. The tendency of people to look toward others for cues about the appropriate way to behave when confronted by an emergency is known as

(A) bystander intervention.

(B) pluralistic ignorance.

(D) diffusion of responsibility.

(E) conformity.

5. Advertisements are made more effective when the communicators areI. attractive.II. famous.III. perceived as experts.

(A) II only

(B) III only

(D) II and III

(E) I, II, and III

6. Your new neighbor seems to know everything about ancient Greece that your social studies teacher says during the first week of school. You conclude that she is brilliant. You do not consider that she might already have learned about ancient Greece in her old school. You are evidencing

(A) the self-fulfilling prophecy effect.

(B) pluralistic ignorance.

(D) the fundamental attribution error.

(E) cognitive dissonance.

7. In Asch’s conformity study, approximately what percentage of participants gave at least one incorrect response?

(A) 30

(B) 40

(D) 60

(E) 70

8. Janine has always hated the color orange. However, once she became a student at Princeton, she began to wear a lot of orange Princeton Tiger clothing. The discomfort caused by her long-standing dislike of the color orange and her current ownership of so much orange-and-black-striped clothing is known as

(A) cognitive dissonance.

(B) contradictory concepts.

(D) opposing cognitions.

(E) inconsistent ideas.

9. When Pasquale had his first oboe solo in the orchestra concert, his performance was far worse than it was when he rehearsed at home. A phenomenon that helps explain Pasquale’s poor performance is known as

(A) social loafing.

(B) groupthink.

(D) social impairment.

(E) diffusion of responsibility.

10. Kelley’s attribution theory says that people use which of the following kinds of information in explaining events?

(A) conformity, reliability, and validity

(B) consensus, consistency, and distinctiveness

(D) salience, importance, and reason

(E) distinctiveness, conformity, and salience

11. After your school’s football team has a big win, students in the halls can be heard saying “We are awesome.” The next week, after the team loses to the last-place team in the league, the same students lament that “They were terrible.” The difference in these comments illustrates

(A) the fundamental attribution error.

(B) self-serving bias.

(D) the false consensus effect.

(E) conformity.

12. Which of the following is the best example of prejudice?

(A) Billy will not let girls play on his hockey team.

(B) Santiago dislikes cheerleaders.(

C) Athena says she can run faster than anybody on the playground.

(D) Mr. Tamp calls on boys more often than girls.

(E) Ginny thinks all Asians are smart.

13. On their second date, Megan confides in Francisco that she still loves to watch Rugrats. He, in turn, tells her that he still cries when he watches Bambi. These two young lovers will be brought closer together through this process of

(A) self-disclosure.

(B) deindividuation.

(D) dual sharing.

(E) open communication.

14. On the first day of class, Mr. Simpson divides his class into four competing groups. On the fifth day of school, Jody is sent to the principal for kicking members of the other groups. Mr. Simpson can be faulted for encouraging the creation of

(A) group polarization.

(B) deindividuation.

(D) superordinate goals.

(E) groupthink.

15. Rosenthal and Jacobson’s “Pygmalion in the Classroom” study showed that

(A) people’s expectations of others can influence the behavior of those others.

(B) attitudes are not always good predictors of behavior.

(D) people like to think that others get what they deserve.

(E) cohesive groups often make bad decisions.